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Abraham's Obedient Faith
Contributed by I. Grant Spong on Apr 17, 2023 (message contributor)
Summary: Is there a difference between works of the law and works of faith? Many Christians confuse the two as one, but they are not. Let's let the Bible answer the question.
A false equivalence is bad logic. It occurs when we believe that the same word in different contexts means the same thing. This happens in Christian discussions of the word works. We solve the confusion by asking what kind of “works” is being discussed. Is it works of the law or works of obedient faith? Did Jesus ever require good works as a Christian obligation?
Let your light so shine before men, that they may see your good works, and glorify your Father which is in heaven. (Matthew 5:16 KJV)
Was Abraham a man of obedient faith before the law of Moses? How could he be justified by the works of a law that was added later?
For if Abraham was justified by works [that is, of the law], he has something to boast about; but not before God. For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness.” (Romans 4:2-3 NASB)
Why was the law added?
What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed [Jesus] should come to whom the promise was made; and it was appointed through angels by the hand of a mediator. (Galatians 3:19 NKJV)
Did Jesus encourage works of obedient faith like those of Abraham?
They answered and said to Him, “Abraham is our father.” Jesus said to them, “If you were Abraham’s children, you would do the works of Abraham. But now you seek to kill Me, a Man who has told you the truth which I heard from God. Abraham did not do this.” (John 8:39-40 NKJV)
Was Abraham’s faith proven by works of obedience or works of the law? If the law came later, how could Abraham be justified by works of the law? What kind of works did Abraham have?
Wasn’t Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar? (James 2:21 HCSB)
Is faith only possible for Jews or also for Gentiles?
Now, is this blessing only for the Jews, or is it also for uncircumcised Gentiles? Well, we have been saying that Abraham was counted as righteous by God because of his faith. (Romans 4:9 NLT)
Was Abraham counted righteous because of the work of circumcision or before that?
But when did this happen? Was it before or after Abraham was circumcised? Of course, it was before. (Romans 4:10 CEV)
What did Abraham do for all who believe?
He received the sign of circumcision as a seal of the righteousness that he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised. The purpose was to make him the father of all who believe without being circumcised, so that righteousness would be counted to them as well, and to make him the father of the circumcised who are not merely circumcised but who also walk in the footsteps of the faith that our father Abraham had before he was circumcised. (Romans 4:11-12 ESV)
Did works of the law or faith give Abraham’s spiritual descendants the world?
For the promise, that he should be the heir of the world, was not to Abraham, or to his seed, through the law, but through the righteousness of faith. (Romans 4:13 KJV)
Is Abraham’s life encouragement to us?
And when God counted him as righteous, it wasn’t just for Abraham’s benefit. It was recorded for our benefit, too, assuring us that God will also count us as righteous if we believe in him, the one who raised Jesus our Lord from the dead. (Romans 4:23-24 NLT)
How does Jesus figure into this?
God gave Jesus to die for our sins, and he raised him to life, so that we would be made acceptable to God. (Romans 4:25 CEV)
In Abraham we see that the work of circumcision and works of the law are not the same as good works of faith. Before the works of circumcision and the law, Abraham was righteous by a living faith of obedience. Through similar obedient faith, anyone can become an heir of the world with Abraham. Will you? You decide!